Review Kaplan Pathophysiology NGN (2024)

Review Kaplan Pathophysiology NGN (1)

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Kaplan Pathophysiology NGN

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Total Questions : 45

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Question 1:

The nurse provides care for a client diagnosed with non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Which observation does the nurse expect to find during assessment of the client?

Answer and Explanation

Enlargement of the spleen is not a common sign of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, but it may occur in some cases. It is more likely to be associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia or Hodgkin lymphoma.

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Question 2:

Which risk factor is significant for the development of prerenal acute kidney injury?

Answer and Explanation

Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation of the glomeruli, the filtering units of the kidneys. It can cause damage to the renal tissue and lead to intrinsic acute kidney injury, not prerenal acute kidney injury.

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Question 3:

Which inflammatory mediators cause the clinical manifestations of asthma?

Answer and Explanation

Macrophages, monocytes, and bradykinin are involved in the inflammatory response, but they do not directly cause the symptoms of asthma. They may activate other cells and mediators that contribute to bronchoconstriction and mucus production.

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Question 4:

During assessment of a client diagnosed with severe anemia, the nurse notes pallor of the skin and mucous membranes. Which explanation is the best rationale for this finding?

Answer and Explanation

Blood clots in the peripheral blood vessels are not a cause of anemia, but a complication of it. They may occur due to increased blood viscosity, reduced blood flow, or hypercoagulability. They may cause tissue ischemia, pain, and necrosis.

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Question 5:

The nurse provides care for a client diagnosed with pulmonary emphysema. The nurse observes the following: respiratory rate 20 breaths/minute, use of intercostal muscles, and decreased mental alertness. Which is the best explanation for these observations?

Answer and Explanation

Bronchial constriction after inhalation of an irritant is a possible trigger for an asthma attack, not emphysema. It causes wheezing, coughing, and dyspnea, but it does not affect the alveolar structure or function.

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Question 6:

Which explanation does the nurse know best describes the role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis?

Answer and Explanation

Initiates the fibrinolytic process in the arteries is not a role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis, but a protective mechanism against it. Fibrinolysis is the breakdown of blood clots by enzymes such as plasmin. It prevents the formation of thrombi that can occlude the arteries and cause ischemia.

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Question 7:

The nurse cares for the client with a history of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Two granulomas were present in the chest x-ray. Which explanation does the nurse understand best describes the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection?

Answer and Explanation

Infected macrophages and lymphocytes surround the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria and form a tuberculous granuloma is the best explanation for the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection. A granuloma is a collection of immune cells that wall off the bacteria and prevent their spread. It is a protective mechanism that limits the infection and preserves the lung function.

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Question 8:

Which explanation does the nurse know best describes the role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis?

Answer and Explanation

Initiates the fibrinolytic process in the arteries is not a role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis, but a protective mechanism against it. Fibrinolysis is the breakdown of blood clots by enzymes such as plasmin. It prevents the formation of thrombi that can occlude the arteries and cause ischemia.

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Question 9:

During review of a client's history, the nurse notes that a goiter is present. Which statement best describes a goiter?

Answer and Explanation

The thyroid gland is cancerous is not a correct description of a goiter. A goiter is a non-specific term that refers to any enlargement of the thyroid gland, which may have various causes and may or may not be associated with thyroid cancer.

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Question 10:

A client is admitted with the diagnosis of "left-sided embolic stroke". Which explanation best describes the most likely cause of the stroke?

Answer and Explanation

A sacculated aneurysm in the circle of Willis is not the most likely cause of a left-sided embolic stroke. A sacculated aneurysm is a bulging of a weak spot in the wall of an artery, which may occur in the circle of Willis, a network of arteries at the base of the brain. A sacculated aneurysm may cause a hemorrhagic stroke, which is a bleeding into the brain, not an embolic stroke, which is a blockage of a blood vessel by a clot.

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Review Kaplan Pathophysiology NGN (2024)
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